Sec. 2803. (1) "Abortion" means that term as defined in section 17015.the intentional use of an instrument, drug, or other substance or device to terminate an individual's pregnancy for a purpose other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a fetus that has died as a result of natural causes, accidental trauma, or a criminal assault on the pregnant individual. Abortion does not include the use or prescription of a drug or device that prevents pregnancy, including by preventing the implantation of an embryo.

(2) "Dead body" means a human body or fetus, or a part of a dead human body or fetus, in a condition from which it may reasonably be concluded that death has occurred.

(3) "Fetal death" means the death of a fetus that has completed at least 20 weeks of gestation or weighs at least 400 grams. Fetal death includes a stillbirth. The definition shall of fetal death must conform in all other respects as closely as possible to the definition recommended by the federal agency responsible for vital statistics.

(4) "Fetal remains" means a dead fetus or part of a dead fetus that has completed at least 10 weeks of gestation or has reached the stage of development that, upon visual inspection of the fetus or part of the fetus, the head, torso, or extremities appear to be supported by skeletal or cartilaginous structures. Fetal remains do not include the umbilical cord or placenta.

(5) "File" means to present a certificate, report, or other record to the local registrar for registration by the state registrar.

(6) "Final disposition" means the burial, cremation,

interment, or other legal disposition of a dead body or fetal remains.

Sec. 10102. As used in this part:

(a) "Adult" means an individual who is at least 18 years of age.

(b) "Agent" means an individual who meets 1 or more of the following requirements:

(i) Is authorized to make health care decisions on the principal's behalf by a power of attorney for health care.

(ii) Is expressly authorized to make an anatomical gift on the principal's behalf by any other record signed by the principal.

(c) "Anatomical gift" means a donation of all or part of a human body to take effect after the donor's death for the purpose of transplantation, therapy, research, or education.

(d) "Body part" means an organ, eye, or tissue of a human being. The term does not include the whole body.

(e) "Decedent" means a deceased individual whose body or body part is or may be the source of an anatomical gift. The term includes a stillborn infant and, subject to this subdivision and restrictions imposed by law other than this part, a fetus. The term does not include a blastocyst, embryo, or fetus that is the subject of an abortion. As used in this subdivision, "abortion" means that term as defined in section 17015.the intentional use of an instrument, drug, or other substance or device to terminate an individual's pregnancy for a purpose other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a fetus that has died as a result of natural causes, accidental trauma, or a criminal assault on the pregnant individual. Abortion does not include the use or

prescription of a drug or device that prevents pregnancy, including by preventing the implantation of an embryo.

(f) "Disinterested witness" means a witness who is not a spouse, child, parent, sibling, grandchild, grandparent, or guardian of or other adult who exhibited special care and concern for the individual who makes, amends, revokes, or refuses to make an anatomical gift. The term does not include a person to which an anatomical gift could pass under section 10111.

(g) "Document of gift" means a donor card or other record used to make an anatomical gift. The term includes a statement or symbol on a driver license, identification card, or donor registry.

(h) "Donor" means an individual whose body or body part is the subject of an anatomical gift.

(i) "Donor registry" means a database that contains records of anatomical gifts and amendments to or revocations of anatomical gifts as provided for in section 10120.

(j) "Driver license" means an operator's or chauffeur's license or permit issued to an individual by the secretary of state under chapter III of the Michigan vehicle code, 1949 PA 300, MCL 257.301 to 257.329, for that individual to operate a vehicle, whether or not conditions are attached to the license or permit.

(k) "Eye" means a human eye or any portion of a human eye.

(l) "Eye bank" means a person that is licensed, accredited, or regulated under federal or state law to engage in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of human eyes or portions of human eyes.

(m) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a court to make decisions regarding the support, care, education, health, or welfare of an individual. The term does not include a guardian ad

litem.

(n) "Hospital" means a facility licensed as a hospital under the law of any state or a facility operated as a hospital by the United States, a state, or a subdivision of a state.

(o) "Identification card" means an official state personal identification card issued by the secretary of state under 1972 PA 222, MCL 28.291 to 28.300.

(p) "Know" means to have actual knowledge.

(q) "Minor" means an individual who is under 18 years of age.

(r) "Organ" means a human kidney, liver, heart, lung, pancreas, or intestine or multivisceral organs when transplanted at the same time as an intestine.

(s) "Organ procurement organization" means a person certified or recertified by the secretary Secretary of the United States department of health and human services Department of Health and Human Services as a qualified organ procurement organization under 42 USC 273(b).

(t) "Parent" means a parent whose parental rights have not been terminated.

(u) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality or any other legal or commercial entity.

(v) "Physician" means an individual authorized to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine and surgery under the law of any state.

(w) "Procurement organization" means an eye bank, organ procurement organization, or tissue bank.

(x) "Prospective donor" means an individual who is dead or near death and has been determined by a procurement organization to have a body part that could be medically suitable for transplantation, therapy, research, or education. The term does not include an individual who has made a refusal.

(y) "Reasonably available" means able to be contacted by a procurement organization without undue effort and willing and able to act in a timely manner consistent with existing medical criteria necessary for the making of an anatomical gift.

(z) "Recipient" means an individual into whose body a decedent's body part has been or is intended to be transplanted.

(aa) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

(bb) "Refusal" means a record created under section 10107 that expressly refuses to make an anatomical gift of an individual's body or body part.

(cc) "Sign" means that, with the present intent to authenticate or adopt a record, an individual does either of the following:

(i) Executes or adopts a tangible symbol.

(ii) Attaches to or logically associates with the record an electronic symbol, sound, or process.

(dd) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(ee) "Technician" means an individual determined to be qualified to remove or process body parts by an appropriate

organization that is licensed, accredited, or regulated under federal or state law. The term includes an enucleator.

(ff) "Tissue" means a portion of the human body other than an organ or an eye. The term does not include blood unless the blood is donated for the purpose of research or education.

(gg) "Tissue bank" means a person that is licensed, accredited, or regulated under federal or state law to engage in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of tissue.

(hh) "Transplant hospital" means a hospital that furnishes organ transplants and other medical and surgical specialty services required for the care of transplant patients.

Sec. 16221. Subject to section 16221b, the department shall investigate any allegation that 1 or more of the grounds for disciplinary subcommittee action under this section exist, and may investigate activities related to the practice of a health profession by a licensee, a registrant, or an applicant for licensure or registration. The department may hold hearings, administer oaths, and order the taking of relevant testimony. After its investigation, the department shall provide a copy of the administrative complaint to the appropriate disciplinary subcommittee. The disciplinary subcommittee shall proceed under section 16226 if it finds that 1 or more of the following grounds exist:

(a) Except as otherwise specifically provided in this section, a violation of general duty, consisting of negligence or failure to exercise due care, including negligent delegation to or supervision of employees or other individuals, whether or not injury results, or any conduct, practice, or condition that impairs, or may impair,

the ability to safely and skillfully engage in the practice of the health profession.

(b) Personal disqualifications, consisting of 1 or more of the following:

(i) Incompetence.

(ii) Subject to sections 16165 to 16170a, substance use disorder as defined in section 100d of the mental health code, 1974 PA 258, MCL 330.1100d.

(iii) Mental or physical inability reasonably related to and adversely affecting the licensee's or registrant's ability to practice in a safe and competent manner.

(iv) Declaration of mental incompetence by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(v) Conviction of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for a maximum term of 2 years; conviction of a misdemeanor involving the illegal delivery, possession, or use of a controlled substance; or conviction of any felony other than a felony listed or described in another subparagraph of this subdivision. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(vi) Lack of good moral character.

(vii) Conviction of a criminal offense under section 520e or 520g of the Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.520e and 750.520g. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(viii) Conviction of a violation of section 492a of the Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.492a. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(ix) Conviction of a misdemeanor or felony involving fraud in

obtaining or attempting to obtain fees related to the practice of a health profession. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(x) Final adverse administrative action by a licensure, registration, disciplinary, or certification board involving the holder of, or an applicant for, a license or registration regulated by another state or a territory of the United States, by the United States military, by the federal government, or by another country. A certified copy of the record of the board is conclusive evidence of the final action.

(xi) Conviction of a misdemeanor that is reasonably related to or that adversely affects the licensee's or registrant's ability to practice in a safe and competent manner. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(xii) Conviction of a violation of section 430 of the Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.430. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(xiii) Conviction of a criminal offense under section 83, 84, 316, 317, 321, 520b, 520c, 520d, or 520f of the Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.83, 750.84, 750.316, 750.317, 750.321, 750.520b, 750.520c, 750.520d, and 750.520f. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(xiv) Conviction of a violation of section 136 or 136a of the Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.136 and 750.136a. A certified copy of the court record is conclusive evidence of the conviction.

(i) Fraud or deceit in obtaining or renewing a license or registration.

(ii) Permitting a license or registration to be used by an unauthorized person.

(iii) Practice outside the scope of a license.

(iv) Obtaining, possessing, or attempting to obtain or possess a controlled substance as defined in section 7104 or a drug as defined in section 7105 without lawful authority; or selling, prescribing, giving away, or administering drugs for other than lawful diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

(d) Except as otherwise specifically provided in this section, unethical business practices, consisting of 1 or more of the following:

(i) False or misleading advertising.

(ii) Dividing fees for referral of patients or accepting kickbacks on medical or surgical services, appliances, or medications purchased by or in behalf of patients.

(iii) Fraud or deceit in obtaining or attempting to obtain third party reimbursement.

(e) Except as otherwise specifically provided in this section, unprofessional conduct, consisting of 1 or more of the following:

(i) Misrepresentation to a consumer or patient or in obtaining or attempting to obtain third party reimbursement in the course of professional practice.

(ii) Betrayal of a professional confidence.

(iii) Promotion for personal gain of an unnecessary drug, device, treatment, procedure, or service.

(iv) Either of the following:

(A) A requirement by a licensee other than a physician or a registrant that an individual purchase or secure a drug, device,

treatment, procedure, or service from another person, place, facility, or business in which the licensee or registrant has a financial interest.

(B) A referral by a physician for a designated health service that violates 42 USC 1395nn or a regulation promulgated under that section. For purposes of this subdivision, 42 USC 1395nn and the regulations promulgated under that section as they exist on June 3, 2002 are incorporated by reference. A disciplinary subcommittee shall apply 42 USC 1395nn and the regulations promulgated under that section regardless of the source of payment for the designated health service referred and rendered. If 42 USC 1395nn or a regulation promulgated under that section is revised after June 3, 2002, the department shall officially take notice of the revision. Within 30 days after taking notice of the revision, the department shall decide whether or not the revision pertains to referral by physicians for designated health services and continues to protect the public from inappropriate referrals by physicians. If the department decides that the revision does both of those things, the department may promulgate rules to incorporate the revision by reference. If the department does promulgate rules to incorporate the revision by reference, the department shall not make any changes to the revision. As used in this sub-subparagraph, "designated health service" means that term as defined in 42 USC 1395nn and the regulations promulgated under that section and "physician" means that term as defined in sections 17001 and 17501.

(v) For a physician who makes referrals under 42 USC 1395nn or a regulation promulgated under that section, refusing to accept a reasonable proportion of patients eligible for Medicaid and refusing to accept payment from Medicaid or Medicare as payment in

full for a treatment, procedure, or service for which the physician refers the individual and in which the physician has a financial interest. A physician who owns all or part of a facility in which he or she provides surgical services is not subject to this subparagraph if a referred surgical procedure he or she performs in the facility is not reimbursed at a minimum of the appropriate Medicaid or Medicare outpatient fee schedule, including the combined technical and professional components.

(vi) Any conduct by a health professional with a patient while he or she is acting within the health profession for which he or she is licensed or registered, including conduct initiated by a patient or to which the patient consents, that is sexual or may reasonably be interpreted as sexual, including, but not limited to, sexual intercourse, kissing in a sexual manner, or touching of a body part for any purpose other than appropriate examination, treatment, or comfort.

(vii) Offering to provide practice-related services, such as drugs, in exchange for sexual favors.

(viii) A violation of section 16655(4) by a dental therapist.

(f) Failure to notify under section 16222(3) or (4).

(g) Failure to report a change of name or mailing address as required in section 16192.

(h) A violation, or aiding or abetting in a violation, of this article or of a rule promulgated under this article.

(i) Failure to comply with a subpoena issued pursuant to this part, failure to respond to a complaint issued under this article, article 7, or article 8, failure to appear at a compliance conference or an administrative hearing, or failure to report under section 16222(1) or 16223.

(j) Failure to pay an installment of an assessment levied under the insurance code of 1956, 1956 PA 218, MCL 500.100 to 500.8302, within 60 days after notice by the appropriate board.

(k) A violation of section 17013 or 17513.

(l) Failure to meet 1 or more of the requirements for licensure or registration under section 16174.

(m) A violation of section 17015, 17015a, 17017, 17515, or 17517.

(n) A violation of section 17016 or 17516.

(m) (o) Failure to comply with section 9206(3).

(n) (p) A violation of section 5654 or 5655.

(o) (q) A violation of section 16274.

(p) (r) A violation of section 17020 or 17520.

(q) (s) A violation of the medical records access act, 2004 PA 47, MCL 333.26261 to 333.26271.

(r) (t) A violation of section 17764(2).

(s) (u) Failure to comply with the terms of a practice agreement described in section 17047(2)(a) or (b), 17547(2)(a) or (b), or 18047(2)(a) or (b).

(t) (v) A violation of section 7303a(2).

(u) (w) A violation of section 7303a(4) or (5).

(v) (x) A violation of section 7303b.

Sec. 16226. (1) After finding the existence of 1 or more of the grounds for disciplinary subcommittee action listed in section 16221, a disciplinary subcommittee shall impose 1 or more of the following sanctions for each violation:

	Violations of Section 16221	Sanctions
Subdivision (a), (b)(i),		Probation, limitation, denial,
(b)(ii), (b)(iii), (b)(iv),		suspension, revocation,

(b)(v), (b)(vi), (b)(vii),	permanent revocation,
(b)(ix), (b)(x), (b)(xi),	restitution, or fine.
or (b)(xii)

Subdivision (b)(viii)	Revocation, permanent revocation,
	or denial.

Subdivision (b)(xiii)	Permanent revocation
	for a violation described in
	subsection (5); otherwise,
	probation, limitation, denial,
	suspension, revocation,
	restitution, or fine.

Subdivision (b)(xiv)	Permanent revocation.

Subdivision (c)(i)	Denial, revocation, suspension,
	probation, limitation, or fine.

Subdivision (c)(ii)	Denial, suspension, revocation,
	restitution, or fine.

Subdivision (c)(iii)	Probation, denial, suspension,
	revocation, restitution, or fine.

Subdivision (c)(iv)	Fine, probation, denial,
or (d)(iii)	suspension, revocation, permanent
	revocation, or restitution.


Subdivision (d)(i)	Reprimand, fine, probation,
or (d)(ii)	denial, or restitution.

Subdivision (e)(i),	Reprimand, fine, probation,
(e)(iii), (e)(iv), (e)(v),	limitation, suspension,
(h), or (s)(q)	revocation, permanent revocation,
	denial, or restitution.

Subdivision (e)(ii)	Reprimand, probation, suspension,
or (i)(i)	revocation, permanent
	revocation, restitution,
	denial, or fine.

Subdivision (e)(vi),	Probation, suspension, revocation
(e)(vii), or (e)(viii)	limitation, denial,
	restitution, or fine.

Subdivision (f)	Reprimand, denial, limitation,
	probation, or fine.

Subdivision (g)	Reprimand or fine.

Subdivision (j)	Suspension or fine.

Subdivision (k), (p),(n),	Reprimand, probation, suspension,
or (r)(p)	revocation, permanent revocation,
	or fine.


Subdivision (l)	Reprimand, denial, or
	limitation.

Subdivision (m) or (o)	Denial, revocation, restitution,
	probation, suspension,
	limitation, reprimand, or fine.

Subdivision (n)	Revocation or denial.

Subdivision (q)(o)	Revocation.

Subdivision (t)(r)	Revocation, permanent revocation,
	fine, or restitution.

Subdivision (u)(s)	Denial, revocation, probation,
	suspension, limitation, reprimand,
	or fine.

Subdivision (t) or (v) or	Probation, limitation, denial,
(x)	fine, suspension, revocation, or
	permanent revocation.

Subdivision (w)(u)	Denial, fine, reprimand,
	probation, limitation,
	suspension, revocation, or
	permanent revocation.

(2) Determination of sanctions for violations under this

section shall be made by a disciplinary subcommittee. If, during judicial review, the court of appeals determines that a final decision or order of a disciplinary subcommittee prejudices substantial rights of the petitioner for 1 or more of the grounds listed in section 106 of the administrative procedures act of 1969, 1969 PA 306, MCL 24.306, and holds that the final decision or order is unlawful and is to be set aside, the court shall state on the record the reasons for the holding and may remand the case to the disciplinary subcommittee for further consideration.

(3) A disciplinary subcommittee may impose a fine in an amount that does not exceed $250,000.00 for a violation of section 16221(a) or (b). A disciplinary subcommittee shall impose a fine of at least $25,000.00 if the violation of section 16221(a) or (b) results in the death of 1 or more patients.

(4) A disciplinary subcommittee may require a licensee or registrant or an applicant for licensure or registration who has violated this article, article 7, or article 8 or a rule promulgated under this article, article 7, or article 8 to satisfactorily complete an educational program, a training program, or a treatment program, a mental, physical, or professional competence examination, or a combination of those programs and examinations.

(5) A disciplinary subcommittee shall impose the sanction of permanent revocation for a violation of section 16221(b)(xiii) if the violation occurred while the licensee or registrant was acting within the health profession for which he or she was licensed or registered.

(6) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (5) and this subsection, a disciplinary subcommittee shall not impose the

sanction of permanent revocation under this section without a finding that the licensee or registrant engaged in a pattern of intentional acts of fraud or deceit resulting in personal financial gain to the licensee or registrant and harm to the health of patients under the licensee's or registrant's care. This subsection does not apply if a disciplinary subcommittee finds that a licensee or registrant has violated section 16221(b)(xiv).

Sec. 16245. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section or section 16245a, an individual whose license is limited, suspended, or revoked under this part may apply to his or her board or task force for a reinstatement of a revoked or suspended license or reclassification of a limited license pursuant to section 16247 or 16249.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this section or section 16245a, an individual whose registration is suspended or revoked under this part may apply to his or her board for a reinstatement of a suspended or revoked registration pursuant to section 16248.

(3) A board or task force shall reinstate a license or registration suspended for grounds stated in section 16221(j) upon on payment of the installment.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in this section or section 16245a, in case of a revoked license or registration, an applicant shall not apply for reinstatement before the expiration of 3 years after the effective date of the revocation. Except as otherwise provided in this section or section 16245a, in the case of a license or registration that was revoked for a violation of section 16221(b)(vii) or (xiii), a violation of section 16221(c)(iv) consisting of a felony conviction, any other felony conviction involving a controlled substance, or a violation of section 16221(q), 16221(o),

an applicant shall not apply for reinstatement before the expiration of 5 years after the effective date of the revocation. The department shall return an application for reinstatement received before the expiration of the applicable time period under this subsection.

(5) The department shall provide an opportunity for a hearing before final rejection of an application for reinstatement unless the application is returned because the applicant is ineligible for reinstatement under subsection (4) or (9).

(6) Based upon on the recommendation of the disciplinary subcommittee for each health profession, the department shall adopt guidelines to establish specific criteria to be met by an applicant for reinstatement under this article, article 7, or article 8. The criteria may include corrective measures or remedial education as a condition of reinstatement. If a board or task force, in reinstating a license or registration, deviates from the guidelines adopted under this subsection, the board or task force shall state the reason for the deviation on the record.

(7) An individual who seeks reinstatement or reclassification of a license or registration under this section shall pay the application processing fee as a reinstatement or reclassification fee. If approved for reinstatement or reclassification, the individual shall pay the per year license or registration fee for the applicable license or registration period.

(8) An individual who seeks reinstatement of a revoked or suspended license or reclassification of a limited license under this section shall have a criminal history check conducted in accordance with section 16174 and submit a copy of the results of the criminal history check to the board with his or her application

for reinstatement or reclassification.

(9) An individual whose license is permanently revoked under section 16221 is ineligible for reinstatement. The department shall return an application for reinstatement received if the applicant is ineligible for reinstatement under this subsection.

Sec. 16299. (1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (2), a person who violates or aids or abets another in a violation of this article, other than those matters described in sections 16294 and 16296, is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable as follows:

(a) For the first offense, by imprisonment for not more than 90 days , or a fine of not more than $100.00, or both.

(b) For the second or subsequent offense, by imprisonment for not less than 90 days nor more than 6 months , or a fine of not less than $200.00 nor more than $500.00, or both.

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a violation of section 17015, 17015a, 17017, 17515, or 17517.this article for which another criminal penalty is specifically prescribed.

Sec. 20106. (1) "Health facility or agency" , except as provided in section 20115, means:

(a) An ambulance operation, aircraft transport operation, nontransport prehospital life support operation, or medical first response service.

(b) A county medical care facility.

(d) A health maintenance organization.

(e) A home for the aged.

(f) A hospital.

(g) A nursing home.

(h) A hospice.

(i) A hospice residence.

(j) A facility or agency listed in subdivisions (a) to (g) located in a university, college, or other educational institution.

(2) "Health maintenance organization" means that term as defined in section 3501 of the insurance code of 1956, 1956 PA 218, MCL 500.3501.

(3) "Home for the aged" means a supervised personal care facility at a single address, other than a hotel, adult foster care facility, hospital, nursing home, or county medical care facility that provides room, board, and supervised personal care to 21 or more unrelated, nontransient, individuals 55 years of age or older. Home for the aged includes a supervised personal care facility for 20 or fewer individuals 55 years of age or older if the facility is operated in conjunction with and as a distinct part of a licensed nursing home. Home for the aged does not include an area excluded from this definition by section 17(3) of the continuing care community disclosure act, 2014 PA 448, MCL 554.917.

(4) "Hospice" means a health care program that provides a coordinated set of services rendered at home or in outpatient or institutional settings for individuals suffering from a disease or condition with a terminal prognosis.

(5) "Hospital" means a facility offering inpatient, overnight care, and services for observation, diagnosis, and active treatment of an individual with a medical, surgical, obstetric, chronic, or rehabilitative condition requiring the daily direction or supervision of a physician. Hospital does not include a mental health hospital licensed or operated by the department of health and human services or a hospital operated by the department of corrections.

(6) "Hospital long-term care unit" means a nursing care facility, owned and operated by and as part of a hospital, providing organized nursing care and medical treatment to 7 or more unrelated individuals suffering or recovering from illness, injury, or infirmity.

Sec. 20131. (1) The department shall establish a comprehensive system of licensure and certification for health facilities or agencies in accordance with this article to do all of the following:

(a) Protect the health, safety, and welfare of individuals receiving care and services in or from a health facility or agency.

(b) Assure Ensure the medical accountability for reimbursed care provided by a certified health facility or agency participating in a federal or state health program.

(2) The department may certify a health facility or agency, or a part thereof, defined in section 20106 or under section 20115 of a health facility or agency, when certification is required by state or federal law, rule, or regulation.

(3) The department shall coordinate all functions in state government affecting health facilities and agencies licensed under this article and cooperate with other state agencies which establish standards or requirements for health facilities and agencies to assure ensure necessary, equitable, and consistent state supervision of licensees without unnecessary duplication of survey, evaluation, and consultation services or complaint investigations. The department may enter into agreements with other state agencies necessary to accomplish this purpose.

(4) The department shall utilize public disclosure to improve the effectiveness of licensure.

Sec. 22224. (1) A health facility required to be licensed as a freestanding surgical outpatient facility by rules promulgated under section 20115(2) due to the performance of abortions at that facility is not required to obtain a certificate of need in order to be granted a license as a freestanding surgical outpatient facility. However, a health facility described in this subsection is subject to this part for the services performed at that facility other than abortions.

(1) (2) If a freestanding surgical outpatient facility is applying for a certificate of need to initiate, replace, or expand a covered clinical service consisting of surgical services, the department shall not count abortion procedures in determining if the freestanding surgical outpatient facility meets the annual minimum number of surgical procedures required in the certificate of need standards governing surgical services.

(2) (3) As used in this section, "abortion" means that term as defined in section 17015.the intentional use of an instrument, drug, or other substance or device to terminate an individual's pregnancy for a purpose other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a fetus that has died as a result of natural causes, accidental trauma, or a criminal assault on the pregnant individual. Abortion does not include the use or prescription of a drug or device that prevents pregnancy, including by preventing the implantation of an embryo.

Enacting section 1. This amendatory act takes effect 90 days after the date it is enacted into law.

Enacting section 2. This amendatory act does not take effect unless Senate Bill No. 622

of the 100th Legislature is enacted into law.